INFORMATION
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P.O. Box 3500
Ontario, Calif.
91761-1019
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Question #16
QUESTION: Did King James authorize his translation to be
used in the churches in England?
ANSWER: No. He authorized it's translation, but not its usage.
EXPLANATION: It is difficult for someone in the twentieth
century, especially someone in America to fathom the conditions
of nearly four hundred years ago. We Christians not only have a
Bible in our language, but more often than not, we have several.
Added to that is our concordance and a raft of Bible
commentaries and sundry other "Christian" books.
Yet the world of the sixteenth and early seventeenth centuries
was quite different. The common man in England had no Bible.
The only copy available to him was chained to the altar of the
church. As recently as 1536, William Tyndale had been burned at
the stake for the high crime of printing Bibles in the language of the
common man, English. When King James commissioned the
fifty-four translators in 1603 he did not mandate the upcoming
translation to be used in churches. In fact, that it was translated
and not intended for the churches left it only one explainable
destiny. That is, that it should be supplied to the common man.
It might be noted that the world has no greater power than the
common man with the common Bible in his hand.
The Answer Book © 1989 by Samuel C. Gipp
Reproduced by permission
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